BSNL INDIA Telecom Examination JTO Question Paper 2017 mumbai

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

Test Paper for bsnl mumbai 

1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces -

a) Magnetic field

b) Electric field

c) Supermagnetic field

d) None

2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is -

a) Mu metal


c) Sapphire.

d) Ferrites

3. PZT piezo- electric materials have -

a) Higher curie temperature

b) Lower curie temperature

c) Absolute temperature

d) None

4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is -

a) The sum of the residual resistivities of the component metals

b) The difference of the residual resistivities of the component metals.

c) The product of the residual resistivities of the component metals

d) Dependent on the concentration of the minor component in the alloy

5. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they -

a) Are always associated with some resistance

b) Are bulky & unsuitable for miniaturisation

c) Are non-linear in nature

d) Saturate quickly

6. The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies -

a) mostly in the p-region

b) mostly in the n-region

c) equally to both p & n region

d) entirely in the p-region

7. The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong & steady magnetic field is -

a) pulsating dc

b) dc

c) rectified ac

d) ac

8. One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is -

a) Electrolytic

b) Ceramic

c) Paper

d) Mylar

9. Electric shock is-

a) Always fatal

b) Never fatal

c) Sometimes fatal

d) Always disfiguring

10. A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is -

a) 16mF

b) 10F

c) 10mF

d) None

11. A telephone relay armature is made of material with -

a) High electrical conductivity

b) Low electrical conductivity

c) Negligible conductivity

d) None

12. Larger the value of filter capacitor -

a) Larger is the peak-peak value of ripple voltage

b) Larger is the peak current in the rectifying diode

c) Longer is the time that current pulse flows through the diode

d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by -

a) Thermally generated electrons & holes

b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction

c) Migration of minority carriers across the junction

d) Flow of drift current

14. The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is -

a) positive

b) negative

c) zero

d) depends on P or N channel

BSNL JTO Recruitment Question Paper previous years 2007 2008

15. The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon -

a) Boron

b) Indium

c) Germanium

d) Antimony

16. When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance -

a) is decreased

b) is increased

c) remains constant

d) first increases & then decreases.

17. In case of a bipolar transistor a is -

a) positive & greater than 1

b) positive & less than 1

c) negative & greater than 1

d) negative & less than 1

18. A BJT is -

a) not very sensitive to radiations

b) very sensitive to radiations.

c) independent of radiations

d) none

19. An SCR may be considered to be -

a) 2 diodes

b) 3 diodes

c) 4 diodes

d) 5 diodes

20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition -

a) IC = bIB

b) IC > bIB

c) IC is independent of all other parameters

d) IC < bIB

21. In modern MOSFET’s the material used for the gate is -

a) High purity silicon

b) High purity silica

c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon

d) Epitaxial grown silicon

22. Find the Norton's equivalent of the circuit given below -

23. When the source in the circuit shown is a sinusoidal source then the input voltage is -

a) 10V

b) 5V

c) 27V

d) 24V

24. The time constant of the network shown in the given figure is given by -

25. The voltage transfer ratio of two-port networks connected in cascade may be conveniently obtained from the -

a) product of the individual ABCD matrices of the two networks

b) product of voltage transfer ratios of the two individual networks

c) sum of the Z- matrices of the two networks

d) sum of the h – matrices of the two networks

26. When a network has response with time as shown in fig. then which one of the following diagrams represents the location of the poles of this network ?

27. For the network shown in the given fig. the ratio is -

28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment. The loss in decibels is -

a) –40dB

b) –6dB

c) –55dB

d) –60dB

29. When the network has 10 nodes & 17 branches then the number of different node pair voltages would be -

a) 7

b) 9

c) 10

d) 45

30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to terminals A & B when frequency is -

a) zero

b) 1rad/s

c) 4rad/s

d) 16rad/s

31.When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz & the effective height of the antenna is 30 m then the calculated value of the radiation resistance is -

a) 1.58 W

b) 158 W

c) 15.8 W

d) None of these

32. Shannon’s law relates -

a) antenna gain to bandwidth

b) frequency to antenna gain

c) antenna gain to transmission losses

d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio

33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as the frequency is increased & is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is -

a) TE1 mode

b) TM01 mode

c) TE01 mode

d) Higher order mode

34.For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is given by (Where the symbols have the usual meanings ) -

a) [ (R+jwL) (G+jwc)]

b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ½

c) [ (R-jwL) (G + jwc) ] ½

d) [(R-jwL) ( G+jw2c)]1/3

35. The advantages of wave guides over co-axial lines would include which of the following features-

1. Easier to use 2. lower power losses

3. Higher operating frequencies possible

a) 1 & 2

b) 1 & 3

c) 2 & 3

d) 1,2 & 3

36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 & R2 such that the standing pattern in the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 & R2 (in ohms) should be -

a) 250 & 200 respectively

b) 225 & 25 respectively

c) 100 & 150 respectively

d) 50 & 125 respectively

37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by -

a) Same cut off frequencies but different field distribution

b) Same cut off frequencies & same field distributions

c) Different cut off frequencies but same field distributions

d) Different cut off frequencies & different field distributions

38.A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 & Er2=1, the angle of incidence for total reflection is -

a) 30 0

b) 60 0

c) 45 0

d) 90 0

39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a -

a) Null

b) Circle

c) Figure of eight

d) None of the above

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40. Permeance is the -

a) square of reluctance

b) reluctance

c) reciprocal of the reluctance

d) cube of the reluctance.

41. One of the following which is an active transducer is -

a) Photoelectric

b) Photovoltaic

c) Photo-conductive

d) Photo emission

42. The wein bridge uses only -

a) Inductors

b) Capacitors

c) Resistors

d) Capacitors & Resistors.

43. The greater the value of Q -

a) higher will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.

b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.

c) nothing can be said)

d) none.

44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is -

a) eddy currents

b) leakage currents

c) residual imperfectness

d) stray fields.

45. Moving iron instruments -

a) have a linear scale

b) do not have a linear scale

c) both a & b)

d) none.

46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one select -

a) 100 v ; 2 mA

b) 100 v ; 100 ohm/volt

c) 100 v ; 1mA

d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA

47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has to be done because -

a) the contacts wear off

b) the strength of permanent magnet decreases with age

c) the armature current produces heating effect

d) there is back emf.

48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by -

a) h parameters

b) ABCD parameters

c) G parameters

d) parameters

49. Consider the following statements -

A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3 phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using

1. Two wattmeters

2. One wattmeter

3. Three wattmeters

Which of these statements is/are correct?

a) 1 & 2

b) 1 & 3

c) 2 & 3

d) 3 alone

50. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to -

a) Produce a constant voltage

b) Provide temperature compensation

c) Provide a constant current

d) Measure average pH value

51. Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) & select the correct answer by using the codes given below the column -

Column A Column B

A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled negative resistance

B) MOSFET 2. High current gain

C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation

D) Zener diode 4. High input impedance

Codes :


a) 1 4 2 3

b) 2 4 1 3

c) 2 3 1 4

d) 1 3 2 4

52. A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-

a) large current , low voltage.

b) low current , large voltage.

c) medium current , large voltage

d) low current, medium voltage.

53. In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is continuous or discontinuous -

a) does not depend on type of load & firing angle delay

b) depends both on the type of load & firing angle delay

c) depends only on the type of load)

d) depends only on the firing angle delay.

54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in amperes is -

a) 20

b) 15

c) 10

d) 5

55. In the performance of single phase & three phase full converters the effect of source inductance is to

a) reduce the ripples in the load current -

b) make discontinuous current as continuous

c) reduce the output voltage

d) increase the load voltage.

56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under -

a) natural commutation in both step up & step down CCs

b) forced commutation in both step up & step down CCs

c) forced commutation in step up CCs

d) forced commutation in step down CCs

57. Power transistors are more commonly of -

a) silicon npn type.

b) silicon pnp type.

c) silicon nnp type.

d) silicon npp type.

58. C is a -

a)Middle level language

b) High level language

c) Low level language

d) None of above

59. What will be output of program

main ( )

{ int i ;

print f ("Enter value of i");

scant ("%d", & i);

if ( i = 5 )

print f ("you entered 5");


print f ("you entered %d", i ); }

if user entered 100 then

a) 5

b) 100

c) 1005

d) None

60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16-

a) 481

b) 139

c) –481

d) –139

61. Two’s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all bits accepts-

a) MSB are zeros

b) LSB are zeros

c) MSB are ones

d) LSB are ones.

62. The schematic circuits of RTL NOR gate is-

63. Transistors with high frequency have -

a) Thick base

b) Thin base

c) Some other feature

d) None of the above

64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of -

a) Average waiting time

b) Grade of service

c) Peak waiting time

d) Erlangs

65. In a Hartley oscillator -

a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid & plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit.

b) The mutual inductance must have the appropriate polarity.

c) Both grid circuit & plate tuned circuit offer inductive reactance

d) None of the above

66.The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator -

a) Linearly but the discharge is non linear

b) Non linearly but the discharge is linear

c) Linearly & the discharge is linear

d) Non linearly & the discharge is non linear

67.In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled & hence difficult to understand when an ac input current is large enough to drive the output to -

a) saturation only

b) Cut off only

c) Either saturation or cut off

d) A value off the load line

68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as -

a) Flags

b) Slags

c) Tags

d) None of the above

69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is -

a) 12

b) 101

c) 100

d) 110

70. Identify coincidence logic circuit in the following –

a) b)

c) d)

71. The output analog voltage Vo is given by -

72. If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is -

a) T flip flop

b) D flip flop

c) JK flip flop

d) BCD decade counter

73. See the Root locus diagram of a system & the following statements :-

1. The open loop system is a second order system.

2. The system is over damped for

3. The system is absolutely stable for all value of R.

Which of these statements are correct?

a) 1, 2, & 3

b) 1 & 3

c) 2 & 3

d) 1 & 2

74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is -

a) 0.5 rad/sec

b) 0.707 rad/sec

c) 1.732 rad/sec

d) 2 rad/sec

BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Examination previous years 2007 2008 Question Paper free donwload online. solutions coming soon!

75. If the open loop transfer function of the system is G(S) H(S) =

then a closed loop pole will be located at S = -12 wher the value of K is -

a) 4355

b) 5760

c) 9600

d) 9862

76. Considering the following open loop transfer function -

The correct sequence of these systems in increasing order of the time taken for the unit step response to settle is –

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 3, 1, 2

c) 2, 3, 1

d) 3, 2, 1.

77. Considering unit feed back control system in the given figure, the ratio of time constant of closed loop response to open loop response will be -

a) 1: 1

b) 2 :1

c) 3 : 2

d) 2 : 3

78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -

a) 17.340

b) 51.40

c) 1200

d) 600

79.For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -

a) Phase can be varied from +1800 to -1800

b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.

c) Demodulation is very easy

d) It gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel.

80 . Several channels are interleaved & then transmitted together is known as –

a) Frequency division multiplex

b) Time division multiplex

c) A group

d) A super group

81. Identify the wrong statement-

The radar cross section of a target -

a) Depends on the frequency used

b) May be reduced by special coating of the target

c) Depends on the aspect of a target, if this is non spherical

d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.

82. Considering following parameters -

1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?

a) 1, 2, & 3

b) 2, 3 & 4

c) 1, 3 & 4

d) 1 & 4

83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -

a) poor front-end rejection

b) misalignment of receiver

c) detuning of one or more IF stages.

d) non functioning of AGC

84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -

a) 262 1/2

b) 525

c) 30

d) 60

85. In a TV receiver the color killer -

a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.

b) ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers

c) prevents color overloading

d) makes sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception during the back porch.

86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m & the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of the cable is-

a) 1mH/m

b) 10 mH/m

c) 0.1 mH/m

d) 0.01 mH/m

87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -

a) distortion less transmission

b) generates undesirable harmonic distortion

c) having loss of power

d) None of above.

88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -

a) Greater mismatch error

b) Lower mismatch error

c) No effect on matching

d) Moderate mismatch error

89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -

a) Critically coupled

b) Under coupled

c) Over coupled

d) No coupling required

90. The critical frequency is always -

a) Lower than maximum usable frequency

b) Equal to maximum usable frequency

c) Higher than maximum usable frequency

d) None of above

91. The PIN diode based on -

a) Nonlinear resistance

b) Nonlinear reactance

c) Negative resistance

d) Controllable impedence

92. Which antenna having circular polarization -

a) Horn antenna

b) Lens antenna

c) Helical antenna

d) Discone antenna

93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 & the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -

a) 250

b) 55

c) 10

d) 45

94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -

a) 30 H

b) 24 H

c) 48 H

d) 60 H

95. In instruction cycle first operation is -

a) Memory read

b) Address read

c) Opcode fetch

d) Data read

96. CMP instruction comes under group -

a) Data transfer

b) Branching operations

c) Machine control operation

d) Logical operations.

97.In which logic operation does not effect any flags -

a) ANA B

b) ORA B

c) XRI A2H

d) CMA

98.What happen when CALL instruction executed -

a) Data retrieved from stock to register

b) Data from register saved on the stock.

c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock

d) 16 bit address from stock retrieved)

99 The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -

a) stack pointer.

b) HL register .

c) Program counter

d) Accumulator

BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Examination Question Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 free download online. Solutions Coming Soon!

100.The decoder is a logic ckt that -

a) Amplifies the current or power at i/p.

b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p

c) Provides appropriate code as o/p for each i/p signal

d) Both b & c)

101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how --------------- he was -

a) indigent

b) indifferent

c) assiduous

d) cursory.

102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -

a) almanac

b) beacon

c) sign

d) signal.

103.What is the correct meaning of prudish.?

a) careful

b) fast

c) God

d) brave

104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -

a) woman – women.

b) hair – hairs

c) child – children.

d) foot – feet.

105.Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-

Abut is

a) Stimulate

b) Grasp

c) Oppose

d) Adjoin

106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -

a) Mount Everest

b) Kanchenjunga

c) Nanda Devi

d) Mount Kailash

107. German silver is an alloy comprising -

a) Copper, Nickel & Zinc

b) Silver, copper & Zinc

c) Silver Nickel & Zinc

d) Nickel, Zinc & Lead

108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in -

a) Delhi

b) Lahore

c) Yangon

d) Agra

109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York & Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -

a) 12 September 2001

b) 11 September 2001

c) 11 July 2001

d) 20 December 2001

110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -

a) 4-2

b) 2-0

c) 3-2

d) 2-1

111.Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ -

a) Earth & Mars

b) Earth & Mercury

c) Mars & Mercury

d) Mercury & Venus.

112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -

a) Nellore

b) Amravati

c) Tanjore

d) Kozhikode

113. The new chairman & Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -

a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh

b) Mr. Jitendra Patil

c) Mr. Ragh

d) Mr. Shubhash chand Jain

114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?

a) Ajanta

b) Ellora

c) Elephanta

d) All originated in the same period)

115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu & Kashmir & the North East under the new ordinance ‘POTO’ is -

a) 20

b) 21

c) 22

d) 23

116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?

a) Ganga

b) Mandakini

c) Alakananda

d) Bhagirathi

117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -

a) Cornea

b) Sclera

c) Iris

d) Retina

118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -

a) 40th Amendment

b) 42nd Amendment

c) 43rd Amendment

d) 44th Amendment

119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -

a) Guru Hargovind

b) Guru Nanak Dev

c) Guru Tegh Bahadur

d) Guru Govind singh

120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -

a) 27

b) 28

c) 29

d) 30

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