2020 AIIMS Medical Entrance Question Paper & pattern

AIIMS (or AIMS in short) offers a number of UG and PG level courses. Admissions to these courses are made on the basis of all India entrance examinations.

1. MBBS Entrance Examination
Every year 50 students are selected for MBBS degree course on the basis of an all India entrance exam. The AIIMS entrance examination is considered to be one of the toughest exams to crack.
Eligibility: Candidates who have passed 12th class examination under 10+2 system or an equivalent examination with Physics, Chemistry and Biology securing a minimum of 60% marks (50% in case of SC/ST candidates) in aggregate in Physics, Chemistry, Biology & English. The candidate should have attained the age of 17 years as on 31st December of the year of examination.
Examination Pattern: The examination consists of an objective type paper of 3 ½ hour duration. The paper consists of 200 questions. There are 60 questions each from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology and 20 questions are from General Knowledge. 1 mark is awarded for each correct answer and 1/3 mark is deducted for each wrong answer.

2. MD/ MS/ M.Ch (6years)/ MDS CoursesAIIMS conducts an all India entrance exam for admission towards its Post Graduate courses on all India basis.
Elgibility: MBBS/BDS Degree of university recognised by the MCI / DCI. The candidate must have obtained a minimum of 55% marks in aggregate in all the MBBS/BDS professional examinations. 33% of seats in PG courses are reserved for AIIMS graduates.

3. DM/ M.Ch Courses
Eligibility: Must possess a degree of (a) M.D. in Medicine for D.M. in Cardiology, Endocrinology, Nephrology, Gastroenterology, Neurology or M.D. in pathology for D.M. in Haemato-Pathology or M.D. in Medicine/ Paediatrics for D.M. in Medical Oncology or M.D. in Radio-diagnosis for D.M. in Neuro-Radiology or M.D. in Anaesthesiology for D.M. in Cardiac-Anaesthesiology and Neuro-Anaesthesiology or M.D. in Paediatrics for D.M. in Neonatology and D.M. in Paediiatric Neurology, and (b) M.S. in General Surgery for M.Ch. courses.
The upper age limit for D.M/ M.Ch. Courses is 35 years as on 1st January 2008 of the year of examination

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2019 UPSC - IAS Exam Guide ( very useful information)

UPSC - IAS Exam Guide & pattern for the 2018 paper

Civil Services - UPSC, IAS, IFS, IPS, IES 2017, 2018 & 2019 Interview Question Papers & Exam There are many reputed institutes at major cities which provide upsc & ias training. you must check their testimonials before going for any institute. You can get study material from Brilliant Tutorials. Most of the information related to IAS - UPSC Examination Dates, Eligibility Criteria, Prelims & Mains Examination previous interview question papers, Question Paper Patterns for year 2016, 2017, 2018 , Indian Forest Service, Combined Defence Services, Combined Medical Services, Indian Economics Services, Indian Statistical Services are answered at the government website.

You can visit the government website at http://www.upsc.gov.in/ for all the guidelines.

Where to Get previous years UPSC solved exam interview question papers?

You can get upsc interview question papers at Rs. 50 per subject from leading bookshops.

The Important Magazines which u should read for UPSC exam preparation help:

Competition Success Review , Toppers , Civil Services Chronicle

You can get the UPSC eligibility criteria & Sylabus from Employment News.

The preliminary exams are held around May-June.It has objective ie multiple choice questions.

There are two papers (duration of each being 2 hrs).

a) General studies

b) Optional subject

you can choose from Psychology, Sociology, Philosophy, Agriculture, Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Statistics etc. You dont necessarily have to choose the subjects of your graduation.

The main written examination usually takes place in Oct-Nov, it comprises of 9 papers in all.

Duration of each paper is 3 hrs.

Language: one of the Indian languages, English, Essay GK & Current Affairs: 2 papers on general studies

Optionals: papers from two subjects that fall in optional-1 & two papers from optional-2

The subjects are listed in the prospectus.

C&idates which clear the mains exam are eligible for an interview which is the final test. The number of c&idates called for interview is double the number of vacancies.

The government is contemplating a change in the UPSC selection format which is essentially the same since British times.

What does it take to opt for civil service?

Mental alertness; interest in a variety of subjects; good intellect in order to be able to tackle any subject or situation; an ability to sift, weigh & apply differing opinions from various people; leadership qualities; the ability to inspire others & to channelise available talent; tact & diplomacy; &, integrity. These are some personality traits that you should look for in yourself when you consciously make a decision to opt for civil service.

The Civil Services has been divided into various grades to facilitate functioning. The grade determines the area of work. Junior scale officerswork in the states that they are allotted to. Senior scale officers work as Under Secretaries in the State. Officers in the Junior AdministrativeGrade, which is reached after nine years of service, hold the position of a Deputy Secretary. When officers make it to the Selection Grade,which is reached after fourteen years of service they hold the position of Directors or Deputy Secretary. The next scale is known as the SuperTime Scale or the Senior Administrative Grade & the officers in this grade hold the post of a Joint Secretary, Additional Secretary, Secretaryor Cabinet Secretary. The Civil Services can be broadly classified as All India Services & Central Services.

What is the Selection Process ?

Eligibility for the Civil Services Preliminary Examination The minimum age requirement for appearing for the Civil Services PreliminaryExamination is 21 & the upper age limit is 30 years. The minimum academic requirement is graduation in any discipline from a recognisedIndian University or an equivalent academic qualification. All c&idates are allowed four attempts. There is a relaxation for SC/ST c&idateson the number of attempts, if they are otherwise eligible.

For entry to the civil service, there’s a multi-step examination process. The entire process takes a full calendar year. The Union Public ServiceCommission (UPSC) first conducts an objective type preliminary examination for screening c&idates.

The Preliminary Examination:

There are two papers for the preliminary round. There is one on general studies & another on an optional subject. The interview question papers are set in both Hindi & English. Each paper is for a duration of two hours. General study covers history, geography, economics & so on. The questionpapers have objective type multiple choice questions. The general studies paper carries 150 marks.

The syllabus for the optional subject is the same as that for graduation level. The question paper for the optional subject carries 300 marks. The optional subject for the second paper may be chosen from the following :

1. Agriculture

2. Animal Husb&ry & veterinary science

3. Botany

4. Chemistry

5. Civil Engineering

6. Commerce

7. Economics

8. Electrical Engineering

9. Geography

10. Geology

11. Indian History

12. Law

13. Mathematics

14. Mechanical Engineering

15. Philosophy

16. Physics

17. Political Science

18. Psychology

19. Public Administration

20. Sociology

21. Statistics

22. Zoology

The Main Examination:

The preliminary round is basically a screening round. The marks obtained are not counted for in the final stage of theexamination. The written test consists of nine papers (essay type answers to be written)

Paper I: One Indian language

That is included in the Eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution. These languages are

1. Assamese

2. Bengali

3. Gujarati

4. Hindi

5. Kannada

6. Kashmiri

7. Malayalam

8. Marathi

9. Oriya

10. Pali

11. Punjabi

12. Sanskrit

13. Sindhi

14. Tamil

15. Telugu

16. Urdu.

NOTE: The marks obtained are not counted for ranking. This paper is not compulsory for candidates from the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,Nagal& & Sikkim.

Paper II: English. The English language paper is also of a qualifying nature.

Paper III: Essay

Paper IV &V: General Studies

Optional Subject I (two papers)

Optional subject II (two papers).

For papers VI, VII, VIII, & IX two subjects are to be chosen.

The list of subjects from which the choice may be made is

1. Agriculture

2. Animal Husb&ry & veterinary science

3. Anthropology

4. Botany

5. Chemistry

6. Civil Engineering

7. Commerce & Accountancy

8. Economics

9. Electrical Engineering

10. Geography

11. Geology

12. History

13. Law

14. Management

15. Mathematics

16. Mechanical Engineering

17. Philosophy

18. Physics

19. Political Science & International Relations

20. Psychology

21. Public Administration

22. Sociology

23. Statistics

24. Zoology

Literature in one of the following languages: Arabic, Assamese, Bengali, Chinese, English, French, German, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Marathi, Malayalam, Oriya,Pali, Persian, Punjabi, Russian, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu. The interview question papers are set in Hindi & English.

The rank of a c&idate is determined by the total marks obtained in the preliminary & the mains exams.

Benefits of Civil Services Exam:

The job is of high esteem & respect. One derives great satisfaction by participating in the administrative machinery of the country. The greatest thing about civil service is the job security. Special facilities include subsidised accommodation, telephone & transport facilities, medical benefits, leave travel concession, etc.

All The Civil Services :

The Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS) & other departments including Finance, Post & Telegraph, Revenue, Secretariat

Indian Police Service (IPS):

The Indian Police Service is divided into various departments like the Crime Branch, the Criminal Investigation Department, Home Guards & the Traffic BureauThe IPS also has several policing agencies like the Intelligence Bureau, the Central Bureau of Investigation, Cabinet Secretariat Security, Border Security Force & the Central Reserve Police Force.



So if you wan to join the IAS or THe Indian Intelligence Bureau - IB or the CBI, then u must start training & taking Coaching for the UPSC & IAS exams.

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Advice /guide for Annamalai University MD MS Entrance Exam 2008

ANNAMALAI UNIVERSITY, RAJAH MUTHIAH INSTITUTE OF HEALTH SCIENCES has announced the application for Admissions to the following Medical Programmes:

PG Degree/Diploma in Medicine & M.D.S. Degree Programmes (On Campus Programmes)

APPLICATIONS ARE INVITED FOR ADMISSION TO THE FOLLOWING PROGRAMMES FOR THE ACADEMIC YEAR 2008-2009.

1. M.D./M.S. Degree/PG Diploma

POST GRADUATE DEGREE PROGRAMMES (3 Years)
M.D.: GENERAL MEDICINE, PAEDIATRICS, ANAESTHESIA, OBTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY, RADIO DIAGNOSIS, DERMATOLOGY, VENEREOLOGY & LEPROSY, ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, BIOCHEMISTRY, PATHOLOGY, MICROBIOLOGY, PHARMACOLOGY, COMMUNITY MEDICINE and PMR

M.S.: GENERAL SURGERY, OPHTHALMOLOGY, OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY, and ORTHOPAEDICS

POST-GRADUATE DIPLOMA PROGRAMMES (2 Years)
D.C.H. - D.A. - D.G.O. - D.Ortho. - D.O. - D.L.O. - D.M.R.D. - D.D.V.L. - D.C.P. and D.P.M.R.

2. M.D.S DEGREE PROGRAMME (MASTER OF DENTAL SURGERY) (3 Years)
–Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery –Periodontics — Pedodontics – Orthodontics – Prosthodontics — Oral & Maxillofacial Pathology — Oral Medicine & Maxillofacial Radiology – Conservative Dentistry & Endodontics

ELIGIBILITY:
1. P.G. DEGREE (M.D./M.S.) / P.G. DIPLOMA PROGRAMMES: Candidates possessing M.B.B.S. degree of a University recognized as equivalent to the M.B.B.S. degree of Annamalai University and who have completed CRRI training on or before 30.4.2008.

2. M.D.S. DEGREE PROGRAMMES: Candidates possessing B.D.S. degree of a University recognized as equivalent to the B.D.S. degree of Annamalai University and who have completed CRRI training on or before 30.4.2008.

COST OF APPLICATION FORM
For M.D./M.S./PG Diploma (Including Entrance Examination Fees) Rs.1000/-
For M.D.S (Including Entrance Examination Fees) Rs. 1000/-

HOW TO APPLY: Application form and prospectus can be obtained from THE REGISTRAR, ANNAMALAI UNIVERSITY, ANNAMALAI NAGAR – 608002 from 26-12-2007 onwards on payment of prescribed fee noted above in Person (OR) by sending a DD obtained on or after 24-12-2007 drawn in favour of THE REGISTRAR, ANNAMALAI UNIVERSITY, ANNAMALAI NAGER from ANY BANK payable at CHENNAI along with a self addressed stamped Thick Kraft envelop of size 30cm x 24 cm (stamps affixed to the value of Rs.40/-) with the name of the Programme for which the application is required should be superscribed boldly on the envelop. The Name of the Programme for which application is made should be clearly indicated in the requisition letter. The Name and Address of the Candidate and Programme for which application is made should be clearly indicated on the back side of the DD also.

ISSUE OF APPLLICATION IN THE UNIVERSITY CASH COUNTER: ONLY DURING WORKING DAYS. (HOLIDAYS-PUBLIC HOLIDAYS, ALL SATURDAYS AND SUNDAYS).

FOR MORE DETAILS REFER PROSPECTUS.
NOTE: The University will not be held responsible for any Postal Delay. Application received after the due date will not be entertained under any circumstances. Hence, the Candidates are advanced to submit their applications well in advance.

IMPORTANT DATES

P.G. DEGREE/PG DIPLOMA/MDS DEGREE PROGRAMMES
Issue of Application forms Commences From: 26.12.2007
Last Date for Issue and Receipt of Filed in Application Forms: 25.01.2008, 5.00 PM.
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
M.D.S.: 03.02.2008, 10.00 AM, Interview: 03.02.3008 A.N.
M.D./M.S. and P.G. DIPLOMA: 03.02.2008, 10.00 AM, Interview: 03.02.2008 A.N. & 04.02.2008

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TAMILNADU PG Entrance exam MD MS 2008 pattern

The Entrance Examination for Post Graduate Degree/ Diploma / 5 year M.Ch.(Neuro Surgery) and MDS Courses for 2008-2009 session will be held  in Chennai. The Centres of examination will be given in the Hall ticket, which will be issued later. (visit www.tnhealth.org).

SELECTION COMMITTEE




DIRECTORATE OF MEDICAL EDUCATION,




KILPAUK, CHENNAI-10.




Eligibility Criteria for Admission

He/She having qualified for the M.B.B.S. degree of this University or any other University recognised as equivalent thereto by the authority of this University and the Medical Council of India and obtained permanent registration from any of the State Medical Councils.
The admitting authorities of the Institutions will strictly ensure that every candidate admitted to the M.D./M.S. Post Graduate (Non Clinical) Courses has obtained permanent registration certificate from any one of the State Medical Council

P.G. DIPLOMA COURSES IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY

Candidates for admission to the first year of the Post Graduate Diploma Courses shall be required to :

He/She having qualified for the M.B.B.S. degree of this University or any other University recognised as equivalent thereto by the authority of this University and the Medical Council of India and obtained permanent registration from any of the State Medical Councils.
The admitting authorities of the Institutions will strictly ensure that every candidate admitted to the M.D./M.S. Post Graduate (Non Clinical) Courses has obtained permanent registration certificate from any one of the State Medical Councils.

D.M./M.Ch. POST GRADUATE HIGHER SPECIALITY DEGREE COURSES

Candidates for admission to the first year D.M./M.Ch. Post Graduate Higher Speciality Degree Course shall be required to have the following qualifications as detailed.

D.M.
Qualification requirements
Branch I Neurology M.D. General Medicine
M.D. Paediatrics

Branch II Cardiology M.D. General Medicine
M.D. Paediatrics

Branch III Nephrology M.D. General Medicine
M.D. Paediatrics

Branch IV Medical Gastroenterology M.D. General Medicine
M.D. Paediatrics

Branch V Medical Oncology M.D. General Medicine
M.D. Paediatrics

M.D. Radio-Therapy

Branch VI Clinical Haematology M.D. General Medicine
M.D. Paediatrics

M.D. Pathology

Branch VII Rheumatology M.D. General Medicine
M.D. Paediatrics

M.Ch.
Qualification requirements
Branch I Cardio Thoracic Surgery M.S. General Surgery
Branch II Neuro Surgery (5 years course) M.B.B.S.
Branch II Neuro Surgery (3 years course) M.S. General Surgery
Branch III Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery M.S. General Surgery
Branch IV Urology M.S. General Surgery
Branch V Paediatric Surgery M.S. General Surgery
Branch VI Surgical Gastroenterology M.S. General Surgery
Branch VII Surgical Oncology M.S. General Surgery
M.S. Orthopaedic Surgery

M.S. (E.N.T)

M.D. Obstetrics & Gynaecology

Branch VIII Vascular Surgery M.S General Surgery

a) He/She having qualified for the Post-Graduate degree of this University or any other University recognised as equivalent thereto by the authority of this University and the Indian Medical Council and obtained permanent registration from any of the State Medical Councils.

b) The admitting authorities of the Institutions will strictly ensure that every candidate admitted to the D.M./M.Ch. Post Graduate Higher Speciality Degree Courses has obtained permanent registration certificate (M.B.B.S., Post Graduate Degree) from any of the State Medical Councils.

c) Candidates who have passed any qualifying exam other than the Tamilnadu Dr. M.G.R Medical University, University of Madras, Bharathiar University, Bharathidasan University & Madurai Kamaraj University shall obtain an eligibility certificate from this University by remitting the prescribed fees along with the application form before seeking admission to any one of the affiliated medical institutions.

d) The duration of certified study and training to the D.M./M.Ch Post Graduate Higher Speciality Degree Course shall be of three years from the academic year 2001-2002 onwards

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2008 AIPGE question paper/guide free

AIPGE Question Paper 2008

AIPGMEE 2008 Multiple choice questions MCQs
AIPGE 2008 - Questions with Answers

Psychiatry :

1. Dementia precox was term by..

a. Freud
b. Bleuler
c. Krepaelin - Ans
d. Schnider
Ans: c

2. male with headache, low mood, lethargy with a child with leukemia, hopeful about remission…

a. depression
b. psychoigenic headache
c. adjustment disorder
d.
Ans: c.

3. male with symptoms mimicking heart disease with normal ECG & X-ray

a. angina pectoris
b. panic attack
c.
d.
Ans: B.

4. PTSD all seen except

a. hallucinations
b. hyperarousal
c. numbness of emotions
d. flashbacks
Ans: a.

5. 1st investigations for erectile dysfunction?

a. sildenafil citrate test
b. cavernosometry
c. doppler (?)
d.

6. not used in anxiety

a. risperidone
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.
Radiology
7. best view for c1-c2

a. AP
b. odontoid
c. oblique
d. lateral
Ans: b.

8. rib notching is seen in

a. coarctation of aorta
b. marfan’s
c.
d.
Ans: a.

9. most sensitive phase to radiotherapy

a. G2M
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

10. Best for GFR measurement

a. DTPA
b. DMSA
c.
d.
Ans; a.

11. Fraying of anterior ends of ribs

a. scurvy
b. rickets
c.
d.
Ans: b.

12. not seen in Tb

a. a. pulled up caucum
b. apple core appearance
c.
d.
Ans: B.

13. specific for aortitis

a. calcification of ascending aorta
b. calcification of descending aorta
c.
d.

14. photoelectric effect

a. interacts with electron in outermost orbit
b. interacts with bound electrons
c. does not interact
d.
Ans: a.

15. earliest sign in pulmonary venous hypertension

a. pleural effusion
b. cephalization of veins
c. Kerly B lines
Ans; b.

16. 1st sign of LA enlargement

a. posterior displacement of esophagus
b. widening of carinal angle
c. upper displacement of left bronchus
d. double contour of right border

17. contrat allergy asso with?

a. anaphylactoid reactions
b. IgE mediated reactions
c.
d.
Ans: a.

Anaesthesia
18. train of four asso with…

a. mechanical ventilation
b. nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
c.
d.
Ans: b.

19. propofol not true is …

a. contraindicated in porphyria
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

20. flase about fluranes is…

a. sevoflurane is less cardiodepressant than isopfulrane
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

21. flumazenil is…

a. reverse agonist
b. antagonist
c. partial agonist
d.
Ans: b.
skin…
22. male with patchy loss of scalp hair, eyebrows & beard with grey hair…

a. alopecia aereata
b. anagen effluvium
c. telogen effluvium
d. anrogenic alopecia
Ans: a.

23. DOC for pregnant woman in 2nd trimister with pustular psoriasis

a. prednisolone
b. dapsone
c. acitretin
d. methotrexate

24. female with oral lesions…

a. pemphigus vulgaris
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.
25. what is not true about syphilis?

I don’t remember the options exactly…

26. DOC for tertiary syphilis

a. procaine penicillin
b. benzathine penicilline
c.
d.
Ans; b.

27. Dharmendra index && jopling’s calssification for…

a.Tb
b. leprosy
Ans: b.

28. DOC for lepra II rections..

a. thalidomide
b. corticosteroids
c. clofazimine
d.
Ans; a.
orthopaedics
29. Pollicisation…

a. reconstruction of thumb
b. shortening of finger
c.
d.
Ans; a.

30. best test for acute knee injury

a. Lachman’s test
b. McMurrey’s test
c. Apley’s test
d.
Ans; a.
31. Coronary ligament is…

a. b/w menisci at anterior ends
b. b/w menisci at posterior ends
c. b/w menisci & tibial condyle
d. b/w menisci & femoral condyle
Ans; c.

32. repair is better than removal in meniscal injury…

a. outer injury
b. middle
c. inner
d. at junction with cruciate ligaments

33. knee locking in standing position is…

a. internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
b. internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
c. external rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
d. external rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
Ans; a.

34. patient with HIV on protease inhibitor with limitation of abduction & internal rotation of hip…

a. osteonecrosis of hip
b.
c.
d.

35. false about myositis ossificans progressiva (child with heterotopic ossifications….)

a. pneumonia is common
b. life longetivity is normal
c.
d.
Ans: b.

36. most common site for autologs BG…

a. iliac crest
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

37. false about charcot’s joint in diabetic…

a. limitation of movements with bracing
b. arthrodesis
c. total ankle replacement
d. arthrocentesis

38. false about TB osteomyelitis

a. aundant periosteal reaction
b. sequestrum seen
c. signs of inflammation are less common
d.
Ans: a.
pediatrics…
39. lowest recurrence in bed wetting..

a. bed alarms
b. desmopressine
c. imipramine
d.
Ans: a.

40. repeat Q - neonatal alveolar proteinosis

41. repeat Q - investigation for 2 days child with no passage of meconium.. barium enema

42. repeat Q - neonate with congenital diaphragmatic hernia with distress.. nasogastric aspiration (according to speed solution - confirm presence of ET)

43. repeat Q - bronchiolitis obliterans

44. child with meconuria & absent anus

a. anoplasty
b. transverse colostomy
c. sigmoid colostomy
Ans: c.

45. child with distended abdomen with gas under diaphragm..

a. perforation of stomach
b. necrotising enterocolitis/pneumatosis cystosis intestinalis
c.
d.
Ans: b.

46. right sided aortic arch a/w..

a. TOF
b. corrected TGA (it was not uncorrected TGA where it is seen)
c.
d.
Ans; A.

47. False about PDA

a. 2-3 times commoner in males ( female:male 2:1)
b. ligation is surgery
c. more in immature infants (not remember exactly)
d.
Ans; a.

48. CNS damage in which congenital intrauterine infection?

a. rubella & CMV
b. rubella & toxoplasmosis
c. CMV & toxoplasmosis

49. MC seizure.. repeat Q

a. subtle
Ans; a.

50. false about cerebellar astrocytoma…

a. low grade more common in children
b. commonly infratentorial
c. seen more commonly in 1st 2 decades
d. (answer?)

51. 6 yr child with recurrent gross hematuria for 2 yrsa. IgA nephropathy
b. wilm’s
c.
d.

52. MCC of developmental delay… repeat Q - constitutional

53. not included in IMNCI

a. malaria
b. neonatal tetanus
c. otitis media

54. coarctatoin of aorta a/w - repeat Q - bicuspid aortic valve

55. Rx of perforated necrotizing colitis..

a. conservative
b. excision of segment with anastomosis
c.
d.
Ans; b.

56. Gomez classification false is..

a. based on height
b. 50% Boston standards
c.
d.

Obs & Gyn..
57. not a cause of recurrent abortion.. repeat Q - TORCH

58. DOC for sever HT in preeclampsia

a. labetalol
b. methyldopa
c.
d.
Ans; a.

59. Investigation for endosalpingitis..

a. leproscopy
b. hysteroscopy
c.
d.
Ans; a.

60. 1st sign of puberty in girls - repeat Q - thelarche

61. virus asso with Ca cervix..

a. HPV
b. HIV
c.
d.
Ans; a.

62. false about Ca cervix..

a. common at squamocolumnar junction.
b. CT is the investigation of staging
c.
d.
Ans; b.

63. Rx of 55 yr female with simple hyperplasia endometrium with atypia..

a. hysterectomy
b. MPA
c. LNG IUCD
d.

64. All seen in antiphospholipid antibody except..

a. pancytopenia
b. venous thrombosis
c. recurrent abortions
d. pulmonary hypertension
Ans: d.

65. Contraindication of vaginal delivery after C/S..

a. classical C/S
b. no h/o vaginal delivery
c. breech
d.
Ans; a.

66. all form from mullerian duct except..

a. ovary
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d.
Ans; a.

67. All true about androgen insensitivity syndrome except..

a. XY genotype
b. pubic hair abundant
c.
d.
Ans; b.

68. Heparin in pregnancy supplemented with..

a. Ca
b. Zn
c. Cu
d.
Ans; a.

69. Drugs in PPH except..

a. misoprostol
b. syntocinon
c. syntometrin
d. mifepristone
Ans; d.

70. M/A for clomipohene citrate..

a. removes FEEDBACK by estrogen at hypothalamus
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

71. All are tocolytics except..

a. ritodrine
b. salbutamol
c. may be the answer
d. or may be this!!!

72. MCC of placenta accreta..

a. C/S
b. curettage
c. placenta previa
d.

73. not diagnosed by chorionic villous biopsy..

a. NTD
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

74. MC reversal of TL with..

a. isthmo-isthmic anastomosis
b. isthmo-ampullary anastomosis
c. cornual obstruction
d.
Ans: a.

75. Least falilure with..

a. fallope ring
b. bipolar cautery
c. unipolar cautery
d.
Ans; a.

76. Active management of labout a/e..

a. unterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
b. immediate cuting & ligation of cord
c. massage of fundus
d. controlled cord traction

77. Induction at term not done in..

a. preecplampsia
b. DM
c. heart disease
d.
Ans: c.

78. true about umbilical artery doppler..

a. decrese S/D ration in mothers taking nicotine

79. mother with previous child with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.. anyone remembers the exact question?

80. calender method.. please help…

81. true about lactation mastitis..

a.can lead to abscess & I & D may be required
b. E.coli most common organism
c. infection from GIT of neonate
d.

82. Woman with Bartholin’s cyst.. treatment..

a. marsupialization
b.
c.
d.

Surgery..
83. investigation for nutcracker esophagus..

a. barometry
b. barium swallow
c.
d.
Ans; a.

84. male with blunt injury to abdomen hypotensive responding to in fluids, mild tenderness in epigastrium

a. observation
b. further imaging of upper abdomen
c.
d.
Ans: b.

85. not a landmark for facial nerve - parotid surfery

a. digastric
b. omohyoid
c. retrograde from facial nerve
d.

86. 45 yr female with gall stone 1.5 cm solitary ..

a. cholecystectomy oinly if she develops biliary colic
b. lap cholecystectomy immediately
c. lap cholecystectomy even if she is asymptomatic after 2 months
d. open cholecystectomy even if she is asymptomatic after 2 months
Ans; a.

87. not done in torsion of testis - repeat Q - antibiotics & analgesics

88. hepatic resection.. which Couinods segments.. don’t remember exactly

89. splenectomy in ITP, platelet infusion given at..

a. immediately after ligating splenic vein
b. immediately after removal of spleen
c. after incision
d.

90. ureter stone pain d/t..

a. intramural irritation
b. renal capsular tension d/t back pressure
c. exaggerated peristalsis
d.

91. epispadias a/w..

a. separation of pubic symphysis
b.
c.
d.
Ans:a

92. 40 yr male with dilated esophagus on barium, non-progressive dysphaigia for liquid & solids..

a. achalasia cardia
b.cancer at cardia
c. ca oesophagus
d.

93. MC thyroid carcinoma..

a. papillary
b. follicular
c. anaplastic
d. lymphoma
Ans : a.

94. 25 yr female with blood from single duct in brest..

a. microdocectomy
b. MRM
c.
d.

95. diffuse axonal injury most common at..

a. junction of grey & white matter
b.
c.
d.

96. best method for urine collection - repeat Q - suprapubic aspiration

97. all helpful to d/d cystitis & chronic pyelonephritis except..

a. bacterial ct > 10 8
b. loss of concentrating ability
c. WBC casts
d.
Ans: a.

98. TRUS in prostate most useful for..

a. guided biopsy
b.
c.
d.

99. alcoholic with stones in pancreas..

a. lateral pncreatojejunostomy
b. excision of pancreas
c. d.

100. male with injury to lower CBD ends, duodenum & head of pancreas.. treatment is..

a. Whipple’s operation
b. roux-en-y anastomosis
c.
d.

101. not a complication of hemithyroidectomy..a. wound hematoma
b. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
c. external branch of superior laryngeal nerve palsy
d. hypocalcemia
Ans : d.

102. most preferred route for acute pancreatitis..

a. parenteral
b. gastrostomy
c. jejnostomy
d.
Ans : a.

103. male with crypt abscess & crypt ulcers.. diagnosis..

a. Crohn’s
b. ulcerative colitis
c.
d.

104. definition of penetrating neck trauma..

a. disruption of platysme
b. 2 cm deep
c.
d.
Ans : b.

105. false about vovulus is..

a. sigmoid is more common
b. sigmoidoscopy is contraindicated
c. h/o pain releived by passage of flatus
d.
Ans : b.

106. Abbey flap for..

a. lip
b. tongue
c.
d.
Ans : a.

107. MC posterior mediastinal tumour..

a. teratoma
b. neurofiboma
c. lymphoma
d.

108. there was other Q on mediastinal lesion.. as far as I remember, answer was neuroenteric cyst.. please help..

109. best guide to operate in blunt thorax trauma

a. thoracostomy tube output
b. symptoms
c.
d.

110. there was a Q on management of acute cholecystitis.. please help..

111. Nigro regimen..

a. CT & RT as alternate to surgery
b.
c.
d.

112. Anal fissure best diagnosed by..

a. anoscopy
b. history & visual examination
c.
d.

medicine
113. not true about congenital adrenal hyperplasia

a. 21 hydroxylase defi is the most common cause
b. females present with ambiguous genitalia
c. males present with precoucious puberty
d. hypokalemic alkalosis seen
Ans : a.

114. DOC for CML..

a. imatinib
b.
c.
d.
Ans :a.

115. MC pancreatic tumour in MEN 1..

a. gastrinoma
b. insulinoma
c. glucagonoma
d.
Ans : a.

116. best investigation for intersitial lung disease..

a. HRCT
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

117. investigation for 20 yr female with mild jaundice with spherocytes.. repeat Q - Coomb’s test

118. Pick bodies formed of..

a. tau
b. ubiquitin
c. alpha-synnuclein
d. beta synnuclein
Ans ; a.

119. dying back neuropathy..

a. arsenic
b. GBS
c. DM
d. porphyria

120. true about extramedullary tumour a/e..

a. can lead to Brown-Sequard syndrome
b.
c.
d.

121. poorest prognosis in AML..

a. monosomy 7
b. no cytogenentic abnormality
c. t (15;17)
d.
Ans ; a.

122. cellular BM with pancytopenia a/e - repeat Q - dyserythropoietic anemia

123. All transretinoic acid for - repeat Q - acute promyelovytic anemia

124. which type of hypertriglyceridemia.. VLDL & chylomicron remnants..

a. I
b. IIa
c. IIb
d. III
Ans : d.

125. male with sudden death at basketball found hypertrophied septum.. repeat Q - HOCM

126. Conn’s syndrome mostly d/t..

a. adrenal hyperplasia
b. adrenal carcinoma
c. adrenal adenoma
d.
Ans : c.

127. Megaloblastic anemia should be treated with folic acid & vit B12 because..

a. folic acid alone causes improvement of symptom but worsening of neurolifical symptoms
b.
c.
d.

128. there was a Q on Cushing’s syndrome.. can anyone help?

129. Causative for rheumatoid arthritis..

a. mycoplasma
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

If EBV was amongst the options, it would be the preferred answer..

130. causative of Crohn’s disease…

a. mycobacterium paraTb
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

131. Ttrue about Kawasaki’s disease..

a. 25% have coronary artery aneurysm
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

132. All true about conus syndrome except..

a. saddle anesthesia
b. flexor planter reflex
c. absent knee & ankle jerks
d.
Ans : c.

133. HBs positive HBe negative asymptomatic male.. repeat Q - observation

Ophthalmology
134. Sarcoidosis associated with..

a. band keratopathy
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

135. PHPV asso with..

a. Patau syndrome
b. Down
c.
d.
Ans : a.

136. NF-1 asso with

a. choroidal hemangioma
b. glaucoma - reference - khurana
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

137. Intractable glaucoma a/w..

a. multiple melanomas on anterior iris
b. proliferation of epithelium on anterior iris
c. proliferation of pigmented epithelium on posterior iris
d. swollen lens

138. Osteosarcoma in retinoblastoma d/t a/e..

a. RT
b. CT
c. mutation in p53
d. mutation in Rb

139. MIP 26 in lens - function..

a. water transport
b. proteoglycan assembly
c.
d.

140. not seen in photoreceptor matrix..

a. metalloproteinase
b.
c.
d.

141. final centre for horizontal movements of eye..

a. abducent nucleus
b. trochlear nucleus
c. oculomotor nucleus
d. vestibular nucleus

142. MCC of ocular morbidity in india..

a. refractive errors
b. cataract
c.
d.
Ans : a.

ENT
143. male with dull TM, deafness & tinnitus, type B curve & neck mass..

a. Ca nasopharynx
b. Ca middle ear
c. Tb
d.
Ans : a.

144. Nasal septum not contributed by..

a. lacrimal
b. sphenoid
c. ethmoid
d. palatine
Ans: a.

145. loss of sensation in external auditory canal.. Histelberger sign..

a. Bell’s palsy
b. acoustic neuroma
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

146. true about allergic fungal sinusitis a/e

a. CT shows hyperdense
b. orbital penetration
c. type 1 hypersensitivity
d.

147. singer woman with singer’s nodes with h/o reflux..

a. voice therapy & PPI
b. laryngomicroscopic excision
c.
d.

148. Cochlear implant placed at..

remember it was not hearing aid, itr was cochlear implant

a. horizontal semicircular canal
b. round window
c. oval window
d.

149. age for bilateral external canal atresia with microtia..

a. < 1 yr
b. 5 yrs
c. puberty
d.

SPM
150. MCC of maternal mortality in India..

a. haemorrhage
b. anemia
c. sepsis
d.
Ans : a.

151. definition of low visiona. best corrected 6/60 to 3/60
b. best corrected 6/60 to 6/18
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

152. nutritional surveillance.. please help..

153. among the following false is..

a. health is central responsibility
b. Alma-ata declaration
c. intelligence regulation act
d.

154. psychrometer used for..

a. air velocity
b. humidity
c. radiant heat
d.
Ans : b.

155. transmitted by soft tick

a. KFD
b. relapsing fever
c. tick typhus
d.
Ans : b.

156. demarcation line in iceberg disease

a. symptomatic & asymptomatic
b. diagnosed & undiagnosed
c. apparent & unapperent
d.

157. Isolation not useful for all except..

a. mumps
b. measles
c. hepatitis A
d. pneumonic plague

158. false about live vaccine is..

a. single dose gives lifelong immunity
b. two live vaccines can’t be given together (remember MMR)
c.
d.
Ans: b.

159. vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is..

a. MMR
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

160. ferrugenous bodies in..

a. asbestosis
b. silicosis
c.
d.
Ans ; a.

161. standard deviation is for..

a. chance varience
b. dispersion
c.
d.

162. KAP studies started after..

a. HIV
b. cancer
c.
d.

163. MC occupational cancer..

a. skin
b. bladder
c. lung
d.
ans ; a.

164. not transmitted by soil..

a. brucellosis
b. coccidiodomycosis
c. tetanus
d.
Ans ; a.

165. all important for noncommunicable disease except..

a. dose response relation
b. specificity of asso
c. strength of asso
d. temporal asso
Ans ; a.

166. current list does not include

a. vital stats
b. medical education
c. prevention of spread of communicable disease
d.

167. all zoonosis except..

a. AIDS
b.
c.
d.
Ans; a.

168. CHC is

a. 1st referral
b 2nd referral
c. 3rd referral
d.
Ans; a.

169. complete family size..

a. total fertility rate
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

170. equal interview time eliminates..

a. Berksonian bias
b. recall bias
c. selection bias
d. interviewer bias

171. Delphi’s method for?

Forensic
172. diphtheria like colitis in ascending & trnasverse colon caused by..

a. lead
b. aarsenic
c.
d.

173. abortion sticks - mechanism - repeat Q - stimulation of uterine contraction

174. male from West Bengal with hyperkeratosis, transverse nail lines..

a. chronic arsenic poisoning
b.
c.
d.
Ans : A.

175. suffocation a/e..

a. choking
b. throttling
c. gagging
d. smothering
Ans: b.

176. polychlorinated hydrocarbon is..

a. parathiuon
b. malathion
c. diazinon
d. dieldrin/eldrin
Ans : d.

177. alkanization of urine..

a. barbiturates
b. amphetamina
c. alcohol
d.
Ans; a.

178. Corporo basal index for..

a. race
b. sex
c. age
d.
Ans : b.

179. false negative hydrostatic test in live born..

a. atelectasis
b. meconium aspiration
c. emphysema
d.

180. fatty liver cased by..

a. arsenic
b. aconite
c.
d.
Ans ; a.

181. test for vaginal cells collected for investigation for rape..

a. Lugol’s iodine
b.
c.
d.

Pharmacology
182. all used for bladder spasm post-op except..

a. oxybutynin
b. ipratropium
c.
d.
Ans : b.

183. DOC for diphtheria..

a. erythromycin
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

184. tiotropium used for a/e..

a. urinary retention
b.
c.
d.
ans : a.

185. M/A for paclitaxel..

a. topoisomerase inhibitor
b. polymerization of tubules
c.
d.
Ans : b.

186. M/A of pralidoxime - repeat Q - reactivation of cholinesterase

187. Antipseudomonal penicillin is..

a. piperacillin
b. amoxycillin
c. ampicillin
d.
Ans : a.

188. immunomodulator for genital warts is..

a. imiquimod
b.
c.
d.
Ans: a.

189. not an antifungal…

a. caspofungin
b. undecyclinic acid
c. ciclopirox
d. clofasimine
Ans ; d.

190. which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis.

a. doxycycline
b. cefotetan
c.
d.
Ans : a.

191. all cause discolouration of urine except..

a. rifampin
b. quinine
c.
d.
Ans : b.

192. nephrotoxic drug is.

a. streptomycin
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

193. phase II trials for

a. maxximal tolerated dose
b. efficacy
c. lethal dose
d.
Ans : b.

194. DOC for SVT

a. verapamil
b. diltiazem
c.
d.
Ans : a.

195. false about erythropoietin..

a. decrease reticulocyte count
b. hypertension
c. decrease transfusion requirement
d.
Ans: a.

196. poplypeptide with antitumour activity

a. bleomycine
b. aspartame
c.
d.
Ans : a.

197. therapeutic index for - repeat Q - safety

198. detoxification of drugs all except..

a. cytochrome oxidase
b. cytochrome p 450
c. methylation
d.
Ans : a.

199. probiotics useful for..

a. necrotizing enterocolitis
ans : a.

200. all gause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency except..

a. CQ
b. quinine
c. primaquine
d. pyrimethamine
Ans : d.

201. Torsades de pointes caused by..a. quinidine
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.202. leucovorin used with..

a. methotrexate
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

203. Tacrolimus does not cause..

a. hirsuitism (reef - KDT)
b. nephrotoxicity
c. neurotoxicity
d. DM
Ans : a.

204. there was a Q on Rx of resistant falciperum malaria in child.. don’t remember exactly.. please help..

Microbiology
205. false about v cholerae O 139 - repeat Q - expresses O1

206. false abt yaws..

a. by t. pertenue
b. sexually transmitted
c.
d.
Ans : b.

207. pneumocystic jiroveki.. don’t remember the questions exactly.. help..

208. prion is ..

a. infectious
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

209. cross reaction with synovial fluid - which streptococcal antigen?

a. carbohydrate
b. capsular hyaluronic acid
c.
d.
Ans ; b.

210. H5N1 is..

a. bird flu
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

211. does not cause biliary obstruction..

a. ascaris
b. ankylostoma
c. & d. - liver flukes
Ans : b.

212. false about gram positive cocci..

a. most enterococci are sensitive to penicillin
b. staph saprophytics causes UTI in females
c.
d.
Ans : a.

213. all cause meningitis in elderly except..

a. HSV 2
b. GNB
c. pneumococci
d. listeria
Ans : c.

(I went for HSV 2 but surprised to see HSV a common cause of viral meningitis in Harri.. now not sure abt ans)

214. most resistant to antisetics..

a. cyst
b. spores
c. prions
d. fungi
Ans : c.

215. not true about measles.. don’t remember options.. help..

patho
216. haemodialysis asso amyloidosis - beta-2 microglobulin

217. cold haem,aglutinin is asso with..

a. anti IgM
b. anti IgG
c. anti IgA
d. Donath Landsteiner Ab
Ans : d.

218. Whipple disease - Pathology

a. infiltration of histiocytes in lamina propria
b. granuloma in lamina propria
c.
d.

219. mutation for congenital nephrotic syn

a. nephrin
b. podocin
c. alpha 4 actinin
d.
Ans : a.

220. false abt p53..

a. arrests cel cycle at G1
b. 53 kD protein
c. wild type a/w tumours
d.

221. markers for Hodgkin’s disease.

a. CD 15 & 30
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

222. repeat Q of genomic imprinting

223. factor which causes cross linking & stabilization of clot..

a. factor XIII
b.
c.
d.
Ans : a.

224. cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma..

For more Medical Entrance Exam Solved previous years question papers with answer key of year 2006, 2007, 2008 keep watching out here.

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2008 CBSE PMT Guide

CBSE PMT Question Papers and Guide

CBSE PMT (Pre Medical Test) is a national level entrance exam conducted by CBSE for admission to 15% of the total seats for MBBS and BDS courses in medical colleges run by Union of India, state government, municipal and other local authorities in India except the state of Jammu & Kashmir. The exam is also popularly known as All India Pre Medical Test (AIPMT).

Eligibility
Candidate must have passed 12th class or equivalent with Physics, Chemistry, Biology (which shall include practical tests in these subjects) and Mathematics or any other elective subject with English at a level not less than the core course for English as prescribed by the NCERT.

Candidate must have secured an aggregate of 50% in Physics, Chemistry and Biology taken together (40% in case of SC/ ST/ OBC). He/she must complete 17 years of age on or before December 31st of the year of admission.

Examination Pattern
CBSE - PMT consists of two parts: Preliminary Examination and Final Examination. The Preliminary Examination consists of one paper of 3 hours duration containing 200 objective type questions. Those who clear Preliminary Examination only are eligible to appear in the Final Examination. The Final Examination consists of two papers of 2 hours duration each. Paper-1 contains questions from Physics and Chemistry and Paper-2 contains questions from Biology (Botany & Zoology). Both the papers have subjective questions that are to be answered in the Test Booklet supplied.

next week:
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Keep Watching http://mncplacement.blogspot.com for more Medical Entrance Exams like JIPMER, AFMC, State PMT, Manipal etc. , Engineering Entrance Exams like IIT JEE, AIEEE, State Exams etc. , School class xth and xiith (10th and 12th) CBSE and ICSE Board Exam free solved online question papers, guess papers and Companies Placement Papers with HR Interview Questions, GD Interview Help.

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AFMC (Armed Forces Medical College) 2008 exam pattern

AFMC Question Paper and Guide

AFMC (Armed Forces Medical College) Pune is affiliated to the University of Pune and is recognised by the Medical Council of India. AFMC Pune offers admission to MBBS course on the basis of an objective type written examination conducted on all India level. This is followed by an interview. All candidates admitted to AFMC, Pune have compulsory liability to serve as commissioned officers in the Armed Forces Medical Services on graduation.

Eligibility
All the candidates willing to take admission in AFMC MBBS course should be medically fit as per laid down standards. Only unmarried candidates are eligible. Marriage during the course is not permitted.Educational Qualifications: Candidates must have passed the XII standard/pre-professional/premedical examination or equivalent examination of statutory Indian University/Board or any other recognized Board/University as a regular student in all the subjects opted for in first attempt with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology securing not less than 60% marks in aggregate in the three science subjects taken together, not less than 50% marks in each of the science subjects and not less than 50% marks in English. They must have also passed an examination in Mathematics at least of the matriculation standard.BSc graduates with not less than two of the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany or Zoology) having passed the XII standard/pre professional (Med) with Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English and obtained marks as stated above are also eligible to apply.Age: For 10+2 pass candidates, not less than 17 years but below 22 years as on December 31 of the year of examination. For BSc graduates, below 24 years as on December 31 of the year of examination.

Pattern of Examination

Generally, written test for MBBS courses of AFMC consists of the following pattern 200 questions: 50 each of Physics, Chemistry, Biology and 25 each of English, and Intelligence, logic and reasoning.For each correct answer 1 mark is awarded. For each wrong answer 0.25 marks is deducted. Use of calculator is not permitted in the examination.
Coming Soon:Free Download AFMC - Armed Forces Medical College Medical Entrance Exam Free Previous years 2006 2007 2008 solved online question papers and new sample papers for all subjects here along with detailed answer keys.AFMC Coaching Centers for complete guidance and preparation of AFMC ExamHayagriva Academy (Army School), CoimbatoreAFMC Entrance Coaching ClassHayagriva Academy provides you the most comprehensive training for the student who aspires to enter AFMC, Pune.COURSE HIGHLIGHTS* Expert faculties for all the subjects* A Comprehensive course material as per AFMC Syllabus viz, Botany, Zoology, Physics, Chemistry, English language, Logic & Reasoning.* Weekly 2 Chapter wise Unit Test question papers for each subject* Question bank / Model question papers of AFMC with solutions* Previous 10 years AFMC question papers and key notes.* Full-Syllabus Model/Mock Test in each subject.* Answer sheets (OMR Sheets) will be corrected by our faculties and sent back to the students with the proper guidance.* Timings of the regular course: 9 am 4.30 pm (From Mar 27th To May 2nd ,Except on Sundays)* Safe, Secured and Separate Hostel facilities for boys and girlsDefence Academy CoimbatoreEx Defence OfficersAll the Faculty are highly qualified.They have computer based assessment test Weekly report furnished

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2008 JIPMER medical institute Entrance Exam pattern

JIPMER (Jawaharlal Institute of Post-graduate Medical Education and Research), Pondicherry is affiliated to Pondicherry University.
Admissions to the courses available at JIPMER are made on the basis of merit through All India Entrance Examinations conducted by JIPMER.
JIPMER admits 75 students every year for the MBBS course. The reservation of seats for various categories is as detailed below:
For Pondicherry natives: 20 (5 for Scheduled castes + 15 any others)
For students of other states: 26 (8 for Scheduled castes, 4 for Scheduled tribes, 14 for others) Common All India Entrance Test by CBSE: 11
Central Government Nominations: 18

Eligibility
Students who are Indian nationals, aged 17 years on or before 1st July and passed Higher Secondary Examination (+2) under 10+2+3 pattern with 50% marks in English and 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry and Biology taken together are eligible to appear in the Entrance Examination.

Pattern of Examination
JIPMER Entrance Examination is usually conducted on the second Sunday of June every year. JIPMER does not prescribe any syllabus for our Entrance Examination. However, it is based on CBSE syllabus for 11th and 12th standard students.
The examination consists of 200 multiple choice questions, of one best response type with four alternatives, equally distributed among English, Botany, Zoology, Physics and Chemistry. The evaluation is fully computerized and there is no negative marking.

Postgraduate Courses
Seventy-one PG degree and Diploma seats are available in the following disciplines:
M.D. in General Medicine (8), Obstetrics & Gynaecology (8), Pathology (2), Microbiology (2), Physiology (2), Pharmacology (2), Paediatrics (5), Radiodiagnosis (2), Anaesthesiology (6), Dermatology (Venerology and Leprosy) (3), Biochemistry (2), Community Medicine (2), Psychiatry (1), TB and Respiratory Diseases (1)
M.S. in General Surgery (8), Orthopaedics (2), Ophthalmology (3), E.N.T. (2), Anatomy (2)
Diploma in Child Health (1), Orthopaedics (2), Ophthalmology (2), Radio- Diagnosis (1) and Leprosy (2). Admissions to the PG courses are made on the basis of an Entrance Examination conducted on all India basis.

Eligibility
All the candidates who have passed MBBS Degree in any University recognised by the Medical Council of India and Pondicherry University are eligible to appear for the Entrance Examination. Further the candidate should be an Indian National and should have completed the Internship on or before 31st March of the year of admission

Pattern of Examination
The Examination consists of 250 multiple choice questions (one best response type) of which 100 questions will be from Para-Clinical and the remaining 150 questions from Clinical Subjects. The evaluation is fully computerized and there is no negative marking.

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Sardar Patel University MBBS guide for 2008 exam

Sardar Patel University MBBS MD MS

Sardar Patel University

Courses offered:
Registered MBBS Graduates of MCI Recognized Colleges may apply for admission to the following courses to commence from 1st May, 2008.

3 Year PG Courses (MD/MS): General Medicine, General Surgery, Anesthesiology, Radio-diagnosis, Community Medicine, Obstetrics & Gynecology, Pediatrics, E.N.T., Orthopedics, Ophthalmology, Pathology, Dermatology Venereology and Leprosy, TB & Respiratory Diseases, Microbiology, Bio-Chemistry and Pharmacology.

2 Year Diploma Courses: Anesthesiology, Radiology, Public Health, Industrial Higiene, Obstetrics’ & Gynecology, Pediatrics, E.N.T., Orthopedics, Ophthalmology, Pathology, Dermatology, Venereology and Leprosy, TB & Respiratory Diseases, Microbiology.

2 Year M.Sc. (Medical) Courses : Anatomy, Physiology, Biochemistry, Pharmacology and Microbiology.

Note: 15% of seats will be filled by NRI students in conformity with the judgement of the Supreme Court and as per guidelines / norms prescribed by the Justice R J Shah Admission Committee. Candidates interested to apply against this category may do so through a separate application. The final confirmation of admission to these seats would be subject to approval of the Justice RJ Shah Admission Committee.

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